If you read Kevin Drum, you know that he is a recent convert to the proper use of the phrase "begs the question." (Nutshell: the phrase translates "begs off the question," not "begs for the question.") His new-found zeal reminds me of my own pet peeve: the misuse of the term "comprise."
99.9% of the population uses "comprise" to mean "constitute." This is wrong, according to wise people like Strunk & White (and me). I learned this in law school: "comprise" means "is constituted by." So, the whole comprises the parts, not the other way around. So, "the faculty comprises classroom and clinical teachers," not "classroom and clinical teachers comprise the faculty." My yellowed copy of Strunk & White states:
Comprise. Literally, "embrace": A zoo comprises mammals, reptiles, and birds (because it "embraces," or "includes," them). But animals do not comprise ("embrace") a zoo -- they constitute a zoo.
This usage seems more honored in the breach, but perhaps I am being part of the solution here!
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1. Posted by belchfire on April 11, 2005 @ 9:42 | Permalink
From Merriam-Webster:
Although it has been in use since the late 18th century, sense 3 [constitute] is still attacked as wrong. Why it has been singled out is not clear...
2. Posted by Gordon Smith on April 11, 2005 @ 10:20 | Permalink
Christine, If 99.9% of the population uses "comprise" in a certain way, in what sense is that usage "wrong"?
3. Posted by Christine Hurt on April 11, 2005 @ 10:31 | Permalink
Well, Gordon, if a majority of the married population commits adultery, in what sense is that conduct "wrong"? I am not a grammar relativist, unlike some people. We must have standards, or there will be anarchy and chaos.
4. Posted by Brian McDaniel on April 11, 2005 @ 10:33 | Permalink
Christine-
I draft complex partnership agreements for a living, and I often find myseful using "comprise" (in the correct manner). No other word quite captures the meaning without a lot of distracting (and hence potentially confusing) prepositions.
Gordon-
A fair point, and right, I think as a matter of linguistics. But I think that sometimes it can be pushed too far, especially when it runs up against specialized jargon. Before Clinton was impeached, I used to illustrate this with the definition of "impeach." I'd guess 99% of the population used it to mean "removed from office," when it only means something like "reccomended for removal from office." (Sadly, the Republican impeachment of Clinton but failure to remove him has ruined my illustration by educating the populace.)
5. Posted by Gordon Smith on April 11, 2005 @ 10:40 | Permalink
Brian, On the bright side, Clinton also brought new focus to the word "adultery."
6. Posted by carpundit on April 11, 2005 @ 11:40 | Permalink
The tension between those who think proper usage evolves and those who think it fixed is as great as that between advocates of a living constitution and the strict contructionists. You'll not settle it here.
Misuse of "begging the question" is spreading alarmingly. We must stop it while we can. I think we are too late for "comprise," though I strike it relentlessly whenever I edit.
My third hot-button: describing the "heighth" of something. I first heard it in Maryland, but have now heard it twice in Massachusetts. Length, width, and "heighth." God save us.
7. Posted by Gordon Smith on April 11, 2005 @ 12:00 | Permalink
Christine, Is usage anything but relative? In the case of adultery, we can appeal to stone tablets, but last time I checked Strunk and White was still in paperback.
8. Posted by cori schlegel (kinrowan) on April 15, 2005 @ 4:36 | Permalink
Gordon's last comment not withstanding, I would say that linguistic relatvism and moral relativism are completely separate concepts and not really a valid comparison.
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